Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 4

Q1. AIP India is published by:

       a) DGCA       b) AAI          c) Civil Aviation Ministry        d) ICAO

Ans. b)

Q2. AIP consists of:

       a) 3 parts (GEN, ENR & AD)                                    b) 4 parts (GEN, ENR, AD MET)

       c) 6 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET, COMM, ATC)   d) 2 parts (GEN, AD)

Ans. a)

Q3. Regular amendments to the AIP will be:

       a) Twice a year in Jan and July month of each year

       b) Every quarter of the year Jan, April, July and Oct month of each year

       c) Once every year in the month of April of each year

       d) On as required basis

Ans. c)

Q4. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:

(a) Rising or falling     (b) turning            (c) motion reversal

Ans. a)

5.      A flight , which exceeds Mach number-1 , cannot fly over:

a)      Populated areas   b) Indian Air Space         c) Europe     d) High seas

Ans. b)

Q6. A passenger visited a yellow fever infected area on the previous six days, but is not in   possession of valid yellow fever certificate, then action taken by PIC of the flight is:

a)      Send a radio message two hours before the arrival about the state of the health of the passenger

b)      No action required    

c)      Inform Airlines office after landing

d)     Inform health authorities of the place of departure

Ans. a)

Q7. Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated

        instrument condition can cause:

       (a) Pilot disorientation         (b) False horizon           (c) Elevator illusion

Ans. a)

Q8. Which of the following statements is not correct for classification of Airspace in India?

a)      Class D Airspace is applicable to TMA, control zones and control areas

b)      Class E is applicable to Airspace in designated ATS route outside terminal and control areas.

c)      Class F in applicable to airspace outside CTAs/TMAs/CTRs/ATZs

d)     Class G Airspace is applicable to airspaces other than D,E and F

Ans. c)

Q9. An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of:

       (a) Tumbling backwards    (b) a nose up attitude      (c) a descent with the wing level

Ans. a)

Q10. A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of:

(a)    Spinning in the opposite direction b) Being in a nose up attitude c) Diving into the ground

Ans. b)

Q11. An Aircraft shall report “long final” when it is at ____ from the approach end of the rwy

a)      8NMs     b) 4NMs      c) 1NMs       d) 2 NMs

Ans. a)

Q12. A Cessna 152 aircraft force lands at a wheat field due to shortage of fuel. It will be reported

          as:  a) An accident      b) An incident   c) Not reportable               d) An Airport

Ans. b)

Q13. A pilot should never cross a:

a)      Stop bar which is switched off         b) Stop bar which is lighted 

c)   A taxi holding position marking      d) An intermediate holding position marking

Ans. b)

Q14. FDTL for training flights does not restrict:

        a) Flight Time   b) Flight Duty Time c) Number of landings d) all of the above

Ans. c)

Q15. For a flight at night in VMC, the approach will appear to be

         a) Same as day b) Steeper     c) Speed will be more d) Shallower.

Ans. b)

Q16. Decision Altitude is applicable for:

a)      Non Precision Approaches       b) PAPI Approaches 

c) Precision Approaches                 d) All of the above

Ans. c)

Q17. Prisoners on Board an aircraft can be carried with the permission of

a)      DGCA                                              b) Controller of Aerodrome 

c)Director General of Prisons                d) Police Commissioner

Ans. a)

Q18. Flight time/flight duty time limitations shall be applicable to:

a)      Pilots only               b) Pilots and cabin crews only 

c) P-i-C and Co-pilot    d) all flight crew personnel

Ans. d)

Q19. Large accumulation of carbon mono-oxide in the blood results in:

a)      Dizziness   b) Fear     c) Hot and Cold Sensations  d) Disorientation

Ans. a)

Q20. Deviations from International Standards and recommended practices are published in:

a)      AIRAC      b) AICs             c) AIP            d) ICAO Annexures

Ans. c)

Q21. To find current watch hours of a station you should look into:

a) AIRAC                 b) AICs              c) AIP                      d) Notams

Ans. c)

Q22. ‘ATIS’ is a continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning:

         a) ATS information                   b) ATS and Met information 

c) Navigation Information         d) Traffic Information

Ans. b)

Q23. Flight Manual is to be carried by

a)      All aircraft               b) Scheduled aircraft only

c) If C of A states so     d) All aircraft other than aerial work aircraft

Ans. c)

Q24. An aircraft is on a track of 030º (M) and reports crossing a point at 0412 Hrs at F370. Other

         aircraft at F370 on a track of 100º(M) can cross the same point not earlier than:

         a)   0422 hrs   b) 0417 hrs if 40 kts faster c) 0427 hrs d) 0402 hrs

Ans. c)

Q25. An ac at F390 crosses a point at 0210 hrs wishes to descent to F310. There is reciprocal

         traffic estimating to cross same point at 0300hrs maintaining F 330. By what time the

         descending aircraft should reach F310 if both aircraft maintain same speed?

         a) 0215 hrs   b) 0220 hrs  c) 0225 hrs   d) 0250 hrs

Ans. c)

Q26. OCA is used for determination of:

a)      MDA  b) DA  c) Both MDA and DA   d) None of the above

Ans. c)

Q27. The numbers 09 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

a)      009º and 27º true                      b) 090º and 270º true 

c)   090º and 270º magnetic            d) 090º and 270º compass

Ans. c)

Q28. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

a)      may continue taxiing

b)      should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

c)      should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines

d)     continue taxiing if runway is vacant

Ans. b)

Q29. The numbers 08 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway is oriented approximately

a)      008º and 26º true                         b) 080º and 260º true         

c)   080º and 260º magnetic              d) 080º and 260º compass

Ans. c)

Q30. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

a)      Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway

b)      Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway

c)      Denotes intersecting runways

d)     Denotes intersecting taxiways

Ans. c)

Q31. An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

a)      there are obstructions on the airport

b)      that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums

c)       the Air Traffic Control is not in operation

d)     runway is blocked

Ans. b)

Q32. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

a)      operating at high airspeeds    b) heavily loaded      c) Developing lift   d) taxiing fast

Ans. c)

Q33. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

a)      sink below the aircraft generating turbulence

b)      rise into the traffic pattern

c)      rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway

d)     rise towards the engines of the aircraft

Ans. a)

Q34. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

a)      Inward, upward, and around each tip b) Inward, upward and counterclockwise

c) Outward, upward, and around each tip d) Outward, upward and away from each tip

Ans. c)

Q35. When taking off or landing where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

a)      rise from crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path

b)      rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.

c)      Sink into the flight path of aircraft generating the turbulence

d)     Stay on runway in strong cross wind conditions

Ans. c)

Q36. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

a)      light, dirty and fast                 b) heavy, dirty and fast     

c)   Heavy, clean and slow            d) light, clean and slow

Ans. c)

Q37. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a

a)      light, quartering headwind            b) light, quartering tailwind 

c)   strong headwind                            d) strong tailwind

Ans. b)

Q38. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by

       maneuvering the aircraft

a)      below and downwind from the heavy aircraft

b)      above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

c)      below and upwind from the heavy aircraft

d)     above and downwind from the heavy aircraft

Ans. b)

Q39. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

      a) Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s

           touchdown point

       b) Below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s

           Touchdown point

c)  Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s

   touchdown point

Ans. a)

Q40. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex

        avoidance?

a) Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown

b)    Stay below and to one side of its final approach flight path

c)    Stay well below its final approach flight path

d)   Make a normal approach and land

Ans. a)

Q41. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at

        the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a)      The other aircraft is crossing to the left       b) The other aircraft is flying away from you

      c)   The other aircraft is approaching to the right      d) The other aircraft is crossing head-on

Ans. a)

Q42. During a night flight, you observe steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at

         the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a)       The other aircraft is flying away from you  b) The other aircraft is crossing to the left

   c)   The other aircraft is crossing to the right     d) The other aircraft is approaching head-on

Ans. a)

Q43. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same

         altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a)The other aircraft is crossing to the left  b)The other aircraft is flying away from you

         c)   The other aircraft is approaching head-on  d) The other aircraft is crossing to the right

Ans. c)

Q44. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use

a)      regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’clock positions

b)      a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector

c)      peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

d)     a series of eye movements focused at horizon

Ans. b)

Q45. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use

a)      regularly spaced concentration on the 3-,9-, and 12-o’clock positions

b)      a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector

c)      peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

d)     focusing at lighted objects for 30 sec. 

Ans. c)

Q46. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

a)      The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate

b)      The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space

c)      There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

d)     The nose of other aircraft is pointed towards your aircraft

Ans. c)

Q47. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should

a)      check altitude, airspeed, and heading   

b)   Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

b)      announce their intentions to the nearest ATC

c)      tighten seat belt

Ans. b)

Q48. Most midair collision accidents occur during

a)      hazy days   b) clear days     c) cloudy nights     d) dark nights

Ans. b)

Q49. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

a)      Night vision may be so impaired that pilot cannot see other aircraft.

b)      Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilots reactions are affected.

c)      The pilots may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.

Ans. b)

Q50. The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions:

(a)    Are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilot, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience.

(b)   Occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight.

(c)    Must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments. 

Ans. c)