50.1.6.3 (3407)
An
aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 FT, QNH 993 hPa) with the
altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate ?
a) 1080 FT
b) 700
FT
c) 380 FT
d) 0 FT
50.1.6.3 (3408)
What pressure is defined as
QFE?
a) The pressure at field
elevation
b) The
pressure of the altimeter
c) The pressure reduced
to sea level using actual temperatures
d) The pressure reduced
to sea level using ISA temperatures
50.1.6.3 (3409)
An altimeter adjusted to
1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to
the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be
a) 3006 FT.
b) 2922
FT.
c) 4278 FT.
d) 4194 FT.
50.1.6.3 (3410)
In
Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE
adjustment in Geneva is
a) 942 hPa.
b) 967 hPa.
c) 961
hPa.
d) 948 hPa.
50.1.6.3 (3411)
An
aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second
altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately
a) 7650 FT.
b) 8600
FT.
c) 8350 FT.
d) 8000 FT.
50.1.6.3 (3412)
The
barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2 hPa. The
aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is
1023 hPa.Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 FT, the reading on the altimeter
on the ground will be:
a) 20 FT.
b) 11 FT.
c) -10
FT.
d) 560 FT.
50.1.6.3 (3413)
a) QNH can be equal to
QFE
b) QNH is always lower
than QFE
c) QNH
is always higher than QFE
d) QNH is always equal
to QFE
50.1.6.3 (3414)
Which statement is
true ?
a) QNH can be lower as
well as higher than 1013.25 hPa
b) QNH can not be
1013.25 hPa
c) QNH
is lower than 1013.25 hPa at any time
d) QNH can be 1013.25
only for a station at MSL
50.1.6.3 (3415)
When the subscale is
set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicates
a) elevation while
landing
b) zero while landing
c) elevation
while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard
Atmosphere
d) zero while landing
only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere
50.1.6.3 (3416)
You
must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby island
with an elevation of 4000 FT is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20°C. What is
your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the
subscale?
a) Less than 0 FT
b) 0 FT
c) More
than 0 FT, but less than 4000 FT
d) 4000 FT
50.1.6.3
(3417)
The QNH is equal to
the QFE if
a) the elevation = 0
b) T actual = T standard
c) T
actual > T standard
d) T actual < T
standard
50.1.6.3 (3418)
Which of the
following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?
a) QFE = 995 hPa,
elevation = 1600 FT (488m)
b) QFE = 1000 hPa,
elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
c) QFE =
1003 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
d) QFE = 995 hPa,
elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
50.1.6.3 (3419)
For a
given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate
elevation of the airfield is
a) 160 metres
b) 600
metres
c) 540 metres
d) 120 metres
50.1.6.3 (3420)
Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE
indicates
a) in
standard atmosphere, the height of the aircraft above the official airport
elevation.
b) the
flight level.
c) the aircraft's
altitude above the mean sea level.
d) the height of the
aircraft's wheels above the runway.
50.1.6.4 (3421)
If
atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA +10°C
in the lower troposphere up to 18000 FT, what is the actual layer thickness
between FL 60 and FL 120 ?
a) 6240 FT.
b) 6000
FT.
c) 5900 FT.
d) 5760 FT.
50.1.6.4 (3422)
What
information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable
flight level?
a) Lowest value of QNH
and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
b) Highest value of QNH
and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
c) Highest
value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA
d) Lowest value of QNH
and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA
50.1.6.4 (3423)
Which
weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a
position where flight over mountains could be dangereous?
a) Cold low.
b) Warm
depression.
c) Cold high.
d) Warm high.
50.1.6.4 (3424)
A
vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required separation between two
FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true
vertical separation be?
a) Less than 1000 FT
b) It
remains 1000 FT
c) More than 1000 FT
d) Without QNH
information, it can not be determined
50.1.6.4 (3425)
At
which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the
minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum
safe altitude?
a)
At a temperature greater
than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater than or equal to
1013 hPa
b) In a cold low
pressure region
c) At a temperature less
than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1013 hPa
d) In a warm high
pressure region
50.2.1.1 (3426)
What
is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour?
a) 45 km/h
b) 35
km/h
c) 55 km/h
d) 60 km/h
50.2.1.1 (3427)
What
is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?
a) 50 kt
b) 55 kt
c) 60 kt
d) 70 kt
50.2.1.1 (3428)
What
is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec?
a) 20 m/sec
b) 15
m/sec
c) 25 m/sec
d) 30 m/sec
50.2.1.1 (3429)
What
values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
a) Direction relative to
true north and speed in knots
b) Direction
relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
c) Direction relative to
magnetic north and speed in kmh
d) Direction relative to
grid north and speed in kmh
50.2.2.1 (3430)
Whilst
flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right
drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft's true altitude ?
a) It decreases
b) It increases.
c) It
remains constant.
d) Without knowing the
pressure change this question cannot be answered.
50.2.2.1 (3431)
Which forces are
balanced with geostrophic winds?
a) Pressure gradient
force, Coriolis force.
b) Friction force,
pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
c) Pressure
gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.
d) Pressure gradient
force, centrifugal force, friction force.
50.2.2.1 (3432)
In the southern hemisphere what wind effect
would you expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a low pressure
area at FL 100?
a)
Wind from the right.
b) Wind from the left.
c) Tailwind
with no drift.
d) Headwind with no
drift.
50.2.2.1 (3433)
An
aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the
right in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the
aircraft, is the centre of low pressure ?
a) In front.
b) Behind.
c) To
the left.
d) To the right.
50.2.2.1 (3434)
The
geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system
because the
a) centrifugal force
opposes the pressure gradient
b) centrifugal
force is added to the pressure gradient
c) coriolis force is
added to the pressure gradient
d) coriolis force
opposes to the centrifugal force
50.2.2.1 (3435)
The
geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone because
the
a) centrifugal force is
added to the pressure gradient
b) centrifugal force
opposes the pressure gradient
c) effect
of coriolis is added to friction
d) coriolis effect
opposes the centrifugal force
50.2.2.1 (3436)
An aircraft is flying
in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going
directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to the
aircraft, does the wind come from ?
a) From the left and
slightly on the nose
b) From the right and
slightly on the nose
c) From
the right and slightly on the tail
d) From the left and
slightly on the tail
50.2.2.1 (3437)
What
prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure
areas ?
a) Coriolis force
b) Surface
friction
c) Katabatic force
d) The pressure gradient
force
50.2.2.1
(3438) Geostrophic wind
a) is perpendicular to
the horizontal pressure gradient force
b) is directly
proportional to the density of the air
c) always increases with
increasing height
d) veers with height if
cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere
50.2.2.1
(3439) Wind is caused by
a) horizontal pressure
differences
b) the rotation of the
earth
c) friction
between the air and the ground
d) the movements of
fronts
50.2.2.1 (3440)
You
are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure
surface. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) If the wind is from
the north you are gaining altitude
b) If
the wind is from the south you are gaining altitude
c) If you have a head
wind you are gaining altitude
d) If you have a tail
wind you are losing altitude
50.2.2.1 (3441)
Geostrophic
wind is the wind when isobars are
a) straight lines and no
friction is involved.
b) curved
lines and no friction is involved
c) straight lines and
friction is involved.
d) curved lines and
friction is involved.
50.2.2.1 (3442)
The
wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer
because
a) the coriolis force
tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force
b) contour lines are
lines that connect points with the same windspeed in the upper air
c) the
coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure
system
d) the
friction of the air with the earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion
perpendicular to the gradient force.
50.2.2.1 (3443)
The
wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight
isobars is (other conditions being the same)
a) higher if curvature
is anticyclonic
b) always higher
c) always
lower
d) higher if curvature
is cyclonic
50.2.2.1 (3444)
The geostrophic wind
depends on
a) density, earth's
rotation, geographic latitude
b) earth's rotation,
geographic latitude, centripetal force
c) geographic
latitude, centripetal force, height
d) centripetal force,
height, pressure gradient
The difference between geostrophic wind and
gradient wind is caused by
a) curvature of isobars
b) friction
c) horizontal
temperature gradients
d) slope of pressure
surfaces
50.2.2.1 (3446)
The geostrophic wind speed is directly
proportional to the
a) horizontal pressure
gradient
b) curvature of isobars
c) sine
of latitude
d) density of the air
50.2.2.1 (3447)
For a similar pressure gradient, the
geostrophic wind speed will be
a) greater at 30°N than
at 60°N
b) greater at 60°N than
at 30°N
c) the
same at all latitudes north or south of 15°
d) equivalent to
gradient wind ± thermal component
50.2.2.1 (3448)
For
the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the geostrophic
wind will be
a) greatest at 40°N
b) the
same at all latitudes
c) greatest at 60°N
d) least at 50°N
50.2.2.1 (3449)
Under
anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the
speed of the gradient wind is
a) greater than the
geostrophic wind
b) less than the
geostrophic wind
c) the
same as the thermal component
d) proportional only to
the Coriolis force
50.2.2.2 (3450)
What
characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the
weather map are very close together?
a) Strong and flowing
across the isobars.
b) Very
weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.
c) Strong and parallel
to the isobars.
d) Moderate and parallel
to the isobars.
50.2.2.2 (3451)
Where are you likely to find
the strongest winds close to the ground?
a) In the transition
zone between two air masses
b) At
the centre of a low-pressure system
c) At the centre of a
high-pressure system
d) Where there is little
variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months
50.2.2.2 (3452)
Select the true statement concerning isobars
and wind flow patterns around high-and low-pressure systems that are shown on a
surface weather chart.
a)
When the isobars are close
together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.
b) Surface winds flow
perpendicular to the isobars.
c) Isobars
connect contour lines of equal temperature.
d)
When the isobars are far apart, crest of
standing waves may be marked by stationary lenticular clouds.
50.2.2.2 (3453)
The
greater the pressure gradient the
a) closer the isobars
and the stronger the wind
b) further
the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
c) closer the isobars
and the lower the temperatures
d) further the isobars
will be apart and the higher the temperature
50.2.2.2 (3454)
When
isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close together,
the wind is most likely to be
a) strong
b) blowing perpendicular
to the isobars
c) changing
direction rapidly
d) light
50.2.2.2 (3455)
Which of the
following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL180 in the
northern hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains
constant ?
a) There is no cross
wind
b) There is a cross wind
from the left
c) There
is a cross wind from the right
d) Without knowing
temperature at FL 180 this question can not be answered
50.2.2.3 (3456)
In a low pressure
system the convergence at the surface is caused by
a) frictional forces
b) centripetal forces
c) the
inbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the Coriolis force
d) the curvature of the
isobars
50.2.2.3 (3457)
In an area of
converging air
a) clouds can be formed
b) convective clouds can
be dissolved
c) stratified
clouds can be dissolved
d) clouds can not be
formed
50.2.2.3 (3458)
Divergence
in the upper air results, near the surface, in
a) falling pressure and
likely formation of clouds
b) rising pressure and
likely formation of clouds
c) rising pressure and
likely dissipation of clouds
d) falling pressure and
likely dissipation of clouds
50.2.3.1 (3459)
Between
which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure belt
?
a) 25° - 35°.
b) 10° - 15°.
c) 35° -
55°.
d) 55° - 75°.
50.2.3.1 (3460)
Between
which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low
pressure systems ?
a) 55° - 75°
b) 35° -
55°
c) 25° - 35°
d) 10° - 15°
50.2.3.1 (3461)
In
the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N and 20°N the prevailing
winds are
a) NE trade winds
b) NE monsoon in winter
and SW monsoon in summer
c) SE
trade winds
d) SW winds throughout
the whole year
50.2.3.1 (3462)
(For
this question use annex 050-10721A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world
wind circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zone
a) w
b) t
c) u
d) v
50.2.3.1 (3463)
(For this
question use annex 050-10722A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world
climatic and wind circulation, zone ""t"" is an area of
a) subtropical high
pressure systems
b) SE trade winds
c) travelling
low pressure systems
d) NE trade winds
50.2.3.1 (3464)
(For
this question use annex 050-10723A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world
wind circulation the travelling low pressure systems are applicable to zone
a) s and y
b) t
only
c) t and x
d) u and w
50.2.3.1 (3465)
(For
this question use annex 050-10724A)Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the
weather is predominantly influenced by the zone of
a)
subtropical high pressure,
with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the adjacent zone of
disturbed temperate low pressure
b) antarctic
high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south
Australia and Antarctica
c) disturbed
temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts
resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain
d)
equatorial low pressure due to the proximity
of the intertropical convergence zone over central Australia
50.2.3.1 (3466)
(For
this question use annex 050-10725A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world
climatic and wind circulation, zone ""y"" is an area of
a) travelling low
pressure systems
b) NE trade winds
c) SE
trade winds
d) subtropical high
pressure systems
50.2.3.1 (3467)
(For
this question use annex 050-10726A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world
wind circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone
a) u
b) t
c) v
d) w
50.2.3.1 (3468)
(For
this question use annex 050-10727A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of world
climatic and wind circulation, zone ""u"" is in area of
a) NE trade winds
b) travelling
depressions
c) SW
trade winds
d) subtropical high
pressure
50.2.4.1 (3469)
Which degree of aircraft turbulence is
determined by the following ICAO description?""There may be moderate
changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in
positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes
in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's center of gravity.
Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food
service and walking are difficult.""
a) Moderate.
b) Light.
c) Severe.
d) Violent.
50.2.4.1 (3470)
All
pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You
experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their
seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service
and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as
a) moderate
b) light
c) severe
d) extreme
50.2.4.2 (3471)
What
degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through
a cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100?
a) Severe turbulence in
CB cloud.
b) Moderate
turbulence in NS cloud.
c) Light turbulence in
CB cloud.
d) Light turbulence in
ST cloud.
50.2.4.2 (3472)
Which cloud type may
indicate the presence of severe turbulence ?
a) Altocumulus
lenticularis
b) Stratocumulus
c) Cirrocumulus
d) Nimbostratus
50.2.4.2 (3473)
Fair weather cumulus often
is an indication of
a) turbulence at and
below the cloud level
b) poor
visibility at surface
c) smooth flying
conditions below the cloud level
d) a high risk of
thunderstorms
50.2.4.2 (3474)
On a clear summer day,
turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced
a) during the early
afternoon
b) immediately
after sunset
c) during early morning
hours before sunrise
d) about midmorning
50.2.5.1 (3475)
Generally
northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL are southwesterly while most of the
surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between
these two wind directions?
a) Friction between the
wind and the surface.
b) A
strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
c) Stronger Coriolis
force at the surface.
d) The influence of warm
air at the lower altitude.
50.2.5.1 (3476)
Friction between the air and
the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
a) backing of the wind
and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
b) veering
of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
c) backing of the wind
and increase of wind speed at the surface.
d) veering of the wind
and increase of wind speed at the surface.
50.2.5.1 (3477)
You
are flying at 2 500 FT/AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an
airport, at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would
you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?
a) South-southeast.
b) South-southwest.
c) Southwest.
d) South.
50.2.5.1 (3478)
If
Paris reports a wind of 19015KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?
a) 22030KT
b) 16020KT
c) 25025KT
d) 22010KT
50.2.5.1 (3479)
If
Paris reports a wind of 08010KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?
a) 11020KT
b) 08015KT
c) 05020KT
d) 08005KT
50.2.5.1 (3480)
If
Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
a) 19040KT
b) 16030KT
c) 14020KT
d) 17015KT
50.2.5.1 (3481)
If
Paris reports a wind of 30012KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?
a) 33025KT
b) 23030KT
c) 30025KT
d) 27020KT
50.2.5.1 (3482)
In
the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction
towards the low pressure area because :
a) wind speed decreases
and therefore coriolis force decreases
b) the
pressure gradient increases
c) turbulence is formed
and pressure increases
d) turbulence is formed
and pressure decreases
50.2.5.1 (3483)
What causes surface
winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the
isobars ?
a) Surface friction
b) Coriolis
force
c) Greater density of
the air at the surface
d) Greater atmospheric
pressure at the surface
50.2.5.1 (3484)
In
the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL directly towards the
centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from
a) left and behind
b) right and behind
c) about
45 degrees to the right of directly ahead
d) directly ahead
50.2.5.1 (3485)
In the northern hemisphere the wind at the
surface blows
a) counter-clockwise
around, and toward the centre of, a low pressure area
b) from a low pressure
area to a high pressure area
c) clockwise
around, and away from the centre of, a low pressure area
d) counter-clockwise
around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area.
50.2.5.1 (3486)
During
a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the surface (no frontal passage)
the wind normally
a) backs and decreases
b) veers
and increases
c) backs and increases
d) veers and decreases
50.2.5.1 (3487)
What relationship exists
between the wind at 3000 feet and the surface wind?
a)
The wind at 3000 feet is
parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction is across the isobars
toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weaker.
b) They have the same
direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by friction
c) They
are practically the same, except when eddies exist, caused by obstacles
d) The surface wind is
veered compared to the wind at 3000 feet and is usually weaker.
50.2.5.1 (3488)
The vertical extent of the friction layer
depends primarily on
a) stability, wind
speed, roughness of surface
b) wind speed, roughness
of surface, temperature
c) roughness
of surface, temperature, local time
d) temperature, local
time, environmental lapse rate
50.2.5.1 (3489)
During periods of prolonged clear skies
associated with anticyclonic conditions, the
a) surface wind speed
tends to be highest during the early afternoon
b) surface wind speed
tends to be highest at night
c) angle
between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the early
afternoon
d) wind tends to back
from early morning until early afternoon
50.2.5.1 (3490)
In
the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution
is 350/24, over the sea the surface wind would approximate
a) 340/20
b) 030/20
c) 340/28
d) 030/28
50.2.5.1 (3491)
In the northern hemisphere with an
anticyclonic pressure system the geostrophic wind at 2000 FT over the sea is
060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most likely to be
a) 045/12
b) 060/12
c) 060/18
d) 075/12
50.2.5.2 (3492)
At the approach of a warm front (northern
hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the tropopause.
The effect of this change is that the wind
a) veers in the friction
layer and veers above the friction layer
b) backs in the friction
layer and veers above the friction layer
c) veers
in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
d) backs in the friction
layer and and backs above the friction layer
50.2.6.1 (3493)
In a land- and
sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows :
a) during the night and
is weaker than the sea-breeze.
b) during the day and is
stronger than the sea-breeze.
c) during
the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
d) during the night and
is stronger than the sea-breeze.
50.2.6.1 (3494)
A high pressure area
(shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterranean Sea and its
nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a sunny
afternoon?
a) Sea to land.
b) Land to sea.
c) Variable.
d) Parallel to the
coastline.
50.2.6.1 (3495)
A mountain breeze
(katabatic wind) blows
a) down the slope during
the night.
b) up the slope during
the day.
c) down
the slope during the day.
d) up the slope during
the night.
50.2.6.1 (3496)
Which
of the following is true of a land breeze?
a) It blows from land to water
c) It blows by day
d) It blows only at noon
50.2.6.1 (3497)
An aircraft is approaching
under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast.
When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What wind effect
should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon?
a) Crosswind from the
right
b) Crosswind from the
left
c) Tailwind
d) Headwind
50.2.6.1 (3498)
The
most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward
the :
a) mountain during
daylight hours.
b) mountain
at night.
c) valley during
daylight hours.
d) valley during
daylight as much as at night.
50.2.6.1 (3499)
An
aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is
parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left.
What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a
sunny afternoon ?
a) Crosswind from the
left
b) Crosswind from the
right
c) Tailwind
d) Headwind
50.2.6.1 (3500)
When
otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large
body of water will experience wind
a) from the water in
daytime and from the land at night
b) continually
from land to water
c) continually from
water to the land
d) from the land in
daytime and from the water at night
50.2.6.1 (3501)
The sea breeze is a wind
from the sea
a) occurring only in the
lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime
b) that
reaches up to the tropopause in daytime
c) blowing at night in
mid-latitudes
d) occurring only in
mid-latitudes and in daytime
50.2.6.1 (3502)
In a mountain-valley wind
circulation, the mountain wind blows
a) at night down from
the mountains
b) at night up from the
valley
c) during the day down
from the mountains
d) during the day up
from the valley
50.2.7.1 (3503)
What is the main
cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?
a) The north-south
horizontal temperature gradient at the polar front
b) The
pressure difference, close to the ground, between a high over the Azores and a
low over Iceland
c) The varied elevations
of the tropopause in the polar front region
d) Strong winds in the
upper atmosphere
50.2.7.2 (3504)
An aircraft is flying through the polar
front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core. How would the OAT
change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight?
a) It decreases.
b) It
increases.
c) It first increases,
then decreases.
d) It remains constant.
50.2.7.2 (3505)
What
is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross
section?
a) 1/100
b) 01-Jan
c) 10-Jan
d) 1/1000
50.2.7.2 (3506)
An aircraft is flying
from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL 400 in the
southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced ?
a) It falls.
b) It rises.
c) It
stays the same.
d) It falls and then
rises.
50.2.7.2 (3507)
A wind speed of 350
kt within a jet stream core should be world-wide regarded as:
a) possible but a very
rare phenomenon.
b) not possible.
c) a
common occurence.
d) not unusual in polar
regions.
50.2.7.2 (3508)
An
aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 FT below its core at
right angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The
prevailing wind is
a) from the right
b) from the left.
d) headwind.
50.2.7.2 (3509)
Where, in central Europe, are the highest
wind speeds to be found ?
a) Just below the
tropopause
b) At about 5500 metres
altitude
c) Close
to the ground
d) In the stratosphere
50.2.7.2 (3510)
Which jet stream is connected with a surface
front system?
a) The polar front jet
stream
b) The arctic jet stream
c) The
subtropical jet stream
d) The equatorial jet
stream
50.2.7.2 (3511)
What is the minimum speed for a wind to be
classified as a jet stream?
a) 60 kt.
b) 50 kt.
c) 70
kt.
d) 100 kt.
50.2.7.2 (3512)
A
wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following
windprofile (Northern hemisphere).900hPa 220/20kt 800hPa 220/25kt 700hPa
230/35kt 500hPa 260/60kt 400hPa 280/85kt300hPa 300/100kt250hPa 310/120kt 200hPa
310/80ktWhich system is the jet stream associated with?
a) With a warm front.
b) With
a cold front.
c) With a ITCZ.
d) With an easterly
wave.
50.2.7.2 (3513)
Where, as a general rule, is
the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?
a) In the warm air mass.
b) In
the cold air mass.
c) Just above the
warm-air tropopause.
d) Just below the
cold-air tropopause.
50.2.7.2 (3514)
You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight
at approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120
kt, you notice the temperature barely changes.
a) This phenomenon is
absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core.
b) You
assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with
practically no temperature difference between the two airmasses.
c) Since
the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing have the
instruments tested.
d)
This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large
temperature differences are possible at these heights.
50.2.7.2 (3515)
What
jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de
Janeiro (23°S) at FL 350 in July ?
a) A polar front jet
stream followed by one or two subtropical jet streams.
b) A
subtropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream.
c) A
polar front jet stream followed by a subtropical jet stream and later, a second
polar front jet stream.
d) One subtropical jet
stream.
50.2.7.2 (3516)
While
crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 FT below its
core) and OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
a) Crosswind from the
left
b) Crosswind
from the right
c) A headwind.
d) A tailwind.
50.2.7.2 (3517)
Which
of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?
a) In the northern
hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur
b) In
the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur
c) In the southern
hemisphere no jet streams occur
d) In the southern
hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur
50.2.7.2 (3518)
Which
of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is
correct ?
a)
It lies at a height where
there is no horizontal temperature gradient, the slope of the pressure surfaces
at the height of the core is at its maximum
b) It
and its surface projection lie in the warm air
c) It lies in the warm
air, its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of the core
d) It lies in the cold
air, the thermal wind reverses direction at the height of the core
50.2.7.2 (3519)
On a
particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the
northern hemisphere. This means that
a) the polar air is
below and to the east of the core of the jet
b) the polar air is on
the eastern side and above the core of the jet
c) below
the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to
south
d) above the core of the
jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
50.2.7.3 (3520)
(For
this question use annex 050-2541A)What name is given to the jet stream lying
over North Africa (B) ?
a) Sub-tropical jet
stream
b) Equatorial
jet stream
c) Polar front jet
stream
d) Arctic jet stream
50.2.7.3 (3521)
(For
this question use annex 050-3017A)What name is given to the jet stream lying
across India (A) ?
a) Equatorial jet
stream.
b) Polar
front jet stream.
c) Arctic jet stream.
d) Sub-tropical jet
stream.
50.2.7.3 (3522)
What is the average height
of the arctic jet stream core?
a) 20000 FT .
b) 30000
FT.
c) 40000 FT.
d) 50000 FT.
50.2.7.3 (3523)
Which jet stream blows all
year round, over the northern hemisphere?
a) The subtropical jet
stream.
b) The
polar night jet stream.
c) The equatorial jet
stream.
d) The arctic jet
stream.
50.2.7.3 (3524)
What is the average height
of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?
a) 30000 FT.
b) 20000
FT.
c) 40000 FT.
d) 50000 FT.
50.2.7.3 (3525)
At approximately what
altitude is the subtropical jet stream found over Europe?
a) FL 400
b) FL
200
c) FL 300
d) FL 500
50.2.7.3 (3526)
In
the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay
(19°N - 73°E) to Bangkok (13°N - 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect?
a) Headwinds.
b) Light winds diagonal
to the route.
c) Tailwinds.
d) Strong northerly
winds.
50.2.7.3 (3527)
What
is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the
other jet streams ?
a) Wind direction.
b) Vertical
dimension.
c) Horizontal dimension.
d) Windspeed.
50.2.7.3 (3528)
Which of the
following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
a) Subtropical jet
stream / polar front jet stream.
b) Equatorial jet stream
/ polar front jet stream.
c) Arctic
jet stream / subtropical jet stream.
d) Equatorial jet stream
/ arctic jet stream.
50.2.7.3 (3529)
The equatorial
easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs :
a) only in the summer of
the northern hemisphere at approx. 45 000 FT
b) only in the winter of
the northern hemisphere at approx. 30 000 FT
c) during
the whole year in the southern hemisphere
d) during the whole year
in the northern hemisphere
50.2.7.3 (3530)
During
the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar front
jet stream moves toward the
a) south and speed
increases
b) north
and speed decreases
c) south and speed
decreases
d) north and speed
increases
50.2.7.3 (3531)
Most
strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly direction.
There is, however, an important easterly jet stream. When and where is it
likely to be encountered ?
a) In summer from
south-east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa.
b) In
winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean.
c) In
summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the
Mediterranean to southern Spain.
d) Throughout the year
to the south of the Azorian high.
50.2.7.4 (3532)
The
jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually
identified in flight by
a) long streaks of
cirrus clouds.
b) dust
or haze at high level
c) a constant outside
air temperature
d) a high-pressure
centre at high level
50.2.7.5 (3533)
In
which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ?
a) The cold air side of
the core.
b) The
warm air side of the core.
c) Exactly in the centre
of the core.
d) About 12000 FT above
the core.
50.2.7.5 (3534)
Which
area of a polar front jet stream in the northern hemisphere has the highest
probability of turbulence?
a) Looking
downstream, the area to the left of the core.
b) Looking downstream,
the area to the right of the core.
c) In the core of the
jet stream.
d) Above the core in the
boundary between warm and cold air.
50.2.7.5 (3535)
Under
which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be
experienced ?
a) A curved jet stream
near a deep trough
b) A jet stream, with
great spacing between the isotherms
c) A
westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer
d) A straight jet stream
near a low pressure area
50.2.8.1 (3536)
Which
of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain
waves ?
a)
Stable air at mountain top
altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
b) Unstable
air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the
mountain ridge.
c) Either
stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing
parallel to the mountain ridge.
d) Moist
unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the
mountain ridge.
50.2.8.1 (3537)
At
the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to
be encountered is
a) altocumulus
lenticularis.
b) cirrostratus.
c) cirrus.
d) cumulus mediocris.
50.3.1.1 (3538)
What
of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a
weather stand-point ?
a) Water vapour
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
50.3.1.2 (3539)
What does dewpoint mean?
a) The
temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation.
b) The temperature at
which ice melts.
c) The
freezing level (danger of icing).
d) The
temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are
the same.
50.3.1.2 (3540)
Which of the following is the definition of
relative humidity ?
a) Ratio between the
actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100
b) Ratio between air
temperature and dewpoint temperature X 100
c) Ratio
between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100
d) Ratio between water
vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100
50.3.1.2
(3541)
The
relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of
this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
a) It increases with
increasing water vapour.
b) It is
not influenced by changing water vapour.
c) It decreases with
increasing water vapour.
d) It is only influenced
by temperature.
50.3.1.2
(3542) Relative humidity
a)
changes when water vapour
is added, even though the temperature remains constant.
b) is not affected when
air is ascending or descending.
c) is
not affected by temperature changes of the air.
d)
does not change when water vapour is added
provided the temperature of the air remains constant.
50.3.1.2 (3543)
How,
if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated airmass influenced by
temperature changes?
a) It decreases with
increasing temperature.
b) It is not influenced
by temperature changes.
c) It
increases with increasing temperature.
d) It is only influenced
by the amount of water vapour.
50.3.1.2
(3544)
How
does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated air mass change with
varying temperature?
a) When
temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint
remains constant.
b) When temperature
increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dewpoint decreases.
c) When
temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint
increases.
d) When temperature
decreases, the relative humidity and the dewpoint remain constant.
50.3.1.2 (3545)
When a given mass of
air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidity?
a) It decreases.
b) It increases.
c) It
remains constant.
d) It increases up to
100%, then remains stable.
50.3.1.2 (3546)
During the late
afternoon an air temperature of +12°C and a dew point of +5°C were measured.
What temperature change must occur during the night in order to induce
saturation?
a) It must decrease
to +5°C.
b) It must decrease by
5°C.
c) It must decrease to
+6°C.
d) It must decrease to
+7°C.
50.3.1.2 (3547)
Which of the following
statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
a) It can only be equal
to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
b) It
can be higher than the temperature of the air mass
c) It can be used
together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity
d) It
can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air
temperature is unknown
50.3.1.2
(3548) Relative humidity
a) increases if the air
is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
b) is higher in warm air
than in cool air
c) is
higher in cool air than in warm air
d) decreases if the air
is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant
50.3.1.2 (3549)
The maximum amount of water vapour that the
air can contain depends on the
a) air temperature
b) relative humidity
c) stability
of the air
d) dewpoint
50.3.1.2 (3550)
Dew point is defined as
a) the
temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given
pressure
b) the
lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure
c) the lowest
temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative
humidity
d)
the temperature below which the change of
state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heat
50.3.1.2 (3551)
The difference between temperature and
dewpoint is greater in
a) dry air
b) moist air
c) air
with high temperature
d) air with low
temperature
50.3.1.2 (3552)
The dewpoint temperature
a) can be equal to the
air temperature
b) is always lower than
the air temperature
c) is
always higher than the air temperature
d) can not be equal to
the air temperature
50.3.1.2 (3553)
Relative humidity
depends on
a) moisture content and
temperature of the air
b) moisture content and
pressure of the air
c) moisture
content of the air only
d) temperature of the
air only
50.3.1.2 (3554)
The dewpoint
temperature
a) can be reached by
cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant
b) can be reached by
lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constant
c) can
not be equal to the air temperature
d) can not be lower than
the air temperature
50.3.1.2 (3555)
Relative humidity at
a given temperature is the relation between
a) actual water vapour
content and saturated water vapour content
b) water vapour weight
and dry air weight
c) water
vapour weight and humid air volume
d) dew point and air
temperature
50.3.2.1 (3556)
Which of the
following changes of state is known as sublimation?
a) Solid direct to
vapour
b) Solid direct to
liquid
c) Liquid
direct to solid
d) Liquid direct to
vapour
50.3.2.1 (3557)
Clouds, fog or dew
will always be formed when:
a) water vapour
condenses.
b) water vapour is
present.
c) relative
humidity reaches 98%.
d) temperature and dew
point are nearly equal.
50.3.2.1 (3558)
In which of the
following changes of state is latent heat released ?
a) Gas to liquid
b) Solid to liquid
c) Solid
to gas
d) Liquid to gas
50.3.2.1 (3559)
How
are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally
behind jet aircraft ?
a) Through water vapour
released during fuel combustion
b) Through
a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the
wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humid air
c) Only
through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases
d) In conditions of low
humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases
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