1. In class A airspace
a) All flights are permitted. b) Only VFR flights are permitted.
c) Only IFR flights are permitted. d) SPL VFR flights are permitted.
Ans. c)
2. In class D air space
a) IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic Control
b) IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & receive information in respect of VFR flights
c) VFR flights receive traffic information about other flights
d) all are correct
Ans. d)
3. Route guides are required to be carried in
a) all aircraft b) all private aircraft
c) Aircraft involved in scheduled transport services d) all aircraft engaged in aerial work
Ans. c)
4. ADC clearance is required to be obtained
a) on a cross country flight b) for all aircraft operating within ADIZ
c) When returning to base on the same day
d) it is not required when returning to base on the same day
Ans. b)
5. Pilots log book is to be preserved for
a) 5 years from the date of starting the log book b) 5 years from the date of last entry
c) 3 yrs from the date of last entry d) 10 yrs from the date of last entry
Ans. b)
6. A double white cross displayed on a signal square indicate
a) area not fit for the use of aircraft b) gliding in progress
c) take permission before landing d) prohibited area
Ans. b)
7. Medical for a CPL holder is valid for
a) 2 years b) 1 year
c) 1 year if age is less than 40 years d) 2 years if the age is less than 40 years
Ans. c)
8. Letter ‘W’ in ATS Route designator indicates:
a) Domestic routes b) International routes c) Regional routes d) None of the above
Ans. a)
9. Position report is required to be given when
a) crossing an FIR b) over a compulsory reporting point
c) if so required by ATC d) all are correct
Ans. d)
10. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in
a) Aeradio b) AIP c) Notams d) AIRACs
Ans. b)
11. The highest point on the landing area is called:
a) Aerodrome elevation b) Runway elevation c) ARP d) Threshold elevation
Ans. a)
12. Anti-collision light is a light :
a) Red in colour affixed on top of the control tower
b) A red light on the port wing of the aircraft
c) A red light visible 30deg above and below the horizon of the aircraft which is visible in all directions
d) The navigation lights of any aircraft are called anti-collision lights
Ans. c)
13. Operational Manual is:
a) Prepared by the manufacturer and authorized by operator
b) Prepared by the DGCA and authorized by operator
c) Prepared by the operator and authorized by manufacturer
d) Prepared by the operator and authorized by the DGCA
Ans. d)
14. An aircraft is commencing descend from its initial FL 290 over Palam Airport. The altimeter reads 12000 ft. The commander will report his vertical distance to the ATC in terms of:
a) 12000’ Altitude b) F 120 c) 12000’ a.g.l. d) 12000’ amsl
Ans. b)
15. An aircraft is following a track of 179º (M) on a VFR plan . The choice of flight levels available to the pilot is:
a) 50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,270,290
b) 55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295
c) 50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280
d) 55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275
Ans. d)
16. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means:
a) Do not land for the time being b) Landings Prohibited
c) Aircraft are to land Take off & Taxi on runways and taxi ways only
d) Special precaution while landing should be taken because of the bad state of the
Maneuvering area
Ans. d)
17. The visibility minima for those Airlines who have not filed their own Minima with the
DGCA for an airport for Non Precession approach is:
a) 1500’ b) 1500 meters c) 5 Nm d) 3.7 km
Ans. d)
18. Max flying hours for a flight crew in one year is: ______ hrs
a. 200 b. 900 c. 1200 d. 1000
Ans. d)
19. Aerodrome operation minima is given by
a) DGCA b) Operator c) Operator & is approved by DGCA d) India Met Department
Ans. c)
20. If the age of a CPL holder is more than 40 years the validity of medical is for_________
a) 1 yr b) 6 months c) 2 yrs d) 5 yrs
Ans. b)
a. If a passenger falls sick on board an a/c and he is suspected of any infectious disease then PIC’s action is:
a) To land immediately.
b) To inform health officer of destination aerodrome at least two hrs before landing.
c) To inform DGCA.
d) To inform doctor on board.
Ans. b)
22. The wreckage of crashed aircraft on R/W/ can be removed to:
a) extricate dead animals & persons b) extricate animals& persons, dead or alive
c) Permit movement of other aircraft d) All of the above are correct
Ans. d)
23. An aircraft force lands at an uncontrolled aerodrome, it can take off again:
a) with the permission of DGCA
b) without the permission of controller of Aerodrome
c) with the permission of nearest aerodrome control tower
d) Matter is to be reported to DGCA as an incident
Ans. d)
24. Wake turbulence separation minima for Take off, if a light aircraft is to take off behind a heavy or a medium aircraft is:
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes c) 5 minutes d) Non of the above
Ans. a)
25. All flights above_________ flight levels are to be cleared IFR irrespective of weather
Conditions: a) F 280 b) F 150 c) F 140 d) F 100
Ans. b)
a. Dropping of paper leaf lets require the permission of:
a. Aerodrome b) Local District Magistrate. c) Operator. d) DGCA
Ans. c)
27. If there is a temporary change in the aeronautical services it is intimated through
a) AIP b) AIC c) NOTAM d) AIRAC
Ans. c)
28. The highest flight level that can be flown in India is
a) 460 b) 450 c) 440 d) 400
Ans. a)
29. The duty time of the trainee pilot:
a) is calculated as per the FDTL
b) is not affected by the FDTL
c) is the time calculated from take off to landing
d) is from “chokes off” time to “chokes on” time
Ans. a)
30. A pilot can fly an aircraft which is not entered in the aircraft rating of his licence for endorsement on his licence
a) With in 5 nm of an aerodrome b) With in Local Flying Area of the aerodrome
c) Any where d) Cannot fly
Ans. b)
31. A pilot can fly in 30 consecutive days
a) 100 hrs PIC & 50 hrs as Co pilot b) 100 hrs PIC & 30 hrs as Co pilot
c) 120 hrs PIC & 20 hrs as Co pilot d) 120 hrs PIC & 10 hrs as Co pilot
Ans. b)
32. When an aircraft is being refueled, the refueling must be stopped if a jet aircraft crosses with
in a distance of: a) 15 meters b) 30 meters c) 43 meters d) 45 meters
Ans. c)
33. At an aerodrome the aerobatics are to be carried out above 6000 feet
a) Beyond 4 nm of perimeter of aerodrome
b) Within 2 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
c) Beyond 5 nm of nearest perimeter of aerodrome
d) Beyond perimeter of aerodrome
Ans. b)
34. The FDR has record of operation of preceding
a) 25 hours b) 20 hours c) 15 hours d) 10 hours
Ans. a)
35. The CVR has the capability of recording information
a) One hour or more b) At least 30 minutes
c) Atleast 15 mins d) There is no minimum limit
Ans. b)
36. The CVR is fitted in an aircraft to
a) Monitor the performance of the aircraft b) Help in accident investigation
c) Both are correct d) Non of the above
Ans. b)
37. The FDR is fitted in an aircraft to
a) Monitor the performance of the aircraft b) Help in accident investigation
c) Both are correct d) None of the above
Ans. c)
38. The most effective way to use eyes at night is
a) Focus only at dim lights at a distance b) Flutter eyes rapidly
c) Scan slowly to center off vision d) Focus only on bright lights
Ans. c)
39. A report received from an aircraft giving a position and /or met report is called
a) Met report b) Position report c) Air report d) All of the above
Ans. c)
40. During flight as a pilot you are subjected to unlawful interference .On SSR you should to set
a)Mode A code 7500 b) Mode A code 7600
c) Mode A code 7700 d) Mode C code 7500
Ans. a)
41. ADC is not required
a) Local flying area uptp 2000’ b) Within 5 nm of an aerodrome upto 1000’
c) Aerodrome Traffic zone upto 1000’ d) Below 5000’ AMSL anywhere
Ans. b)
42. What information is included in the third section of an Air report?
a) Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence b) Spot Wind, Icing, Cloud above
c) Spot Wind, Air Temperature, Icing, Turbulence d) ETA Destination
Ans. c)
43. A fresh flight plan is to be filled if a scheduled flight is delayed by more than
a) One hour b) 30 minutes c) 15 mins d) 5 mins
Ans. b)
44. The designators for world wide ATS routes are in which colour
a) White b) Red& Green
c) Red, Green, Blue & Amber d) Red, Green, Blue, Amber & White
Ans. d)
45. The minimum wake turbulence time separation for a heavy aircraft to land behind a heavy
aircraft is: a) 2 minutes (b) 3 minutes (c) 5 minutes (d) not required
Ans. d)
46. The air report contains following items:
a) Air temperature, Turbulence, Surface wind & aircraft Icing
b) Turbulence, upper winds & surface temperature
c) Air temperature, Turbulence, Upper winds & aircraft Icing
d) All are correct
Ans. c)
47. An aircraft can fly over a danger area
a) If a NOTAM is issued that it is not active b) With the permission of ATC
c) Out side the stipulated time d) Cannot fly at all
Ans. c)
48. At an aerodrome special VFR may be authorized when
a) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
b) Visibility falls below 5 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
c) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1500 feet
d) Visibility falls below 8 km or cloud ceiling is less than 1000 feet
Ans. a)
49. A series of red and green projectiles fired at an interval of 10 sec means
a) aircraft is flying over danger area b) aircraft is flying over prohibited area
c) Aircraft is flying over restricted area d) All of the above are correct
Ans. d)
50. Mathura Refinery is a:
17. Danger Area b) Restricted area c) Prohibited area. d) Terminal area.
Ans. c)
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