50.7.2.1 (3731)
In
temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during
the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone ?
a) Calm winds, haze.
b) TS,
SH.
c) CB, TS.
d) NS.
50.7.2.1 (3732)
What
is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary
high?
a) Sinking air
b) Rising air
c) Instability
d) Divergence at higher
levels
50.7.2.1
(3733) Subsidence is :
a) vertically downwards
motion of air
b) horizontal motion of
air
c) vertically
upwards motion of air
d) the same as
convection
50.7.2.1 (3734)
If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in
all levels then the pressure system is a
a) warm high
b) cold low
c) cold
high
d) warm low
50.7.2.1 (3735)
The
stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure
area in the mid-latitudes is called
a) subsidence inversion
b) friction
inversion
c) radiation inversion
d) trade wind inversion
50.7.2.1 (3736)
a) a warm
anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N
b) quasi
stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold anticyclone
c) situated between 50°
and 70°N/a cold anticyclone/steering depressions
d) a cold
anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia
50.7.2.1 (3737)
The most effective way to
dissipate cloud is by
a) subsidence
b) convection
c) a decrease in
temperature
d) a decrease in
pressure
50.7.2.1 (3738)
Areas of sinking air
are generally cloudless because as air sinks it
a) is heated by
compression
b) reaches warmer layers
c) is
heated by expansion
d) loses water vapour
50.7.3.1 (3739)
What is encountered
during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool?
a) Showers and
thunderstorms.
b) Strong westerly
winds.
c) Fine
weather CU.
d) Nothing (CAVOK).
50.7.3.1 (3740)
How do you recognize
a cold air pool?
a) As a low pressure
area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
b) As a high pressure
area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
c) A
cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure
area.
d) A cold air pool may
only be recognized on the surface chart as a high pressure area.
50.7.3.1 (3741)
What type of air
movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?
a) Convergence with
lifting.
b) Divergence with
descending air.
c) Divergence
with lifting.
d) Convergence with
descending air.
50.7.3.1 (3742)
With
an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather
likely to be experienced is :
a) strong wind shear,
convection and snow showers
b) light
wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
c) strong wind with
subsidence at low levels
d) strong wind
associated with an almost clear sky
50.7.3.1 (3743)
Extensive
cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal
depression because of :
a)
surface convergence and
upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression
b) surface
convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the
depression
c) surface
divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the
depression
d)
surface divergence and upper level
convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression
50.7.3.1 (3744)
A
trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of
a)
convergence and widespread ascent
b) divergence and
subsidence
c) divergence and
widespread ascent
d) convergence and
subsidence
50.7.3.1 (3745)
Which is true of a typical
non frontal thermal depression?
a) It forms over land in
summer
b) It
forms over the ocean in summer
c) It forms over the
ocean in winter
d) It forms over land in
winter
50.7.3.1 (3746)
Which is true of a secondary
depression in the northern hemisphere?
a) It tends to move
round the primary in a cyclonic sense
b) It
tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense
c) It rapidly closes on,
and merges with the primary
d) It tends to maintain
its position relative to the primary
50.7.4.1 (3747)
What
type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the presence of
a tropical revolving storm?
a) Dense CI
b) Frequent SC
c) Excessive
accumulation of CU
d) NS spread over a
large area
50.7.4.1 (3748)
Where is the most dangerous zone in a
tropical revolving storm?
a) In the wall of clouds
around the eye.
b) Anywhere in the eye.
c) In
the centre of the eye.
d) About 600 km away
from the eye.
50.7.4.1 (3749)
Tropical
revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the south Atlantic
because
a) of the low water
temperature.
b) there
is no coriolis force present.
c) of the strong
southeast wind.
d) the southeast trade
winds cross over into the northern hemisphere.
50.7.4.1 (3750)
What is the main energy
source of a tropical revolving storm?
a) Latent heat released
from condensing water vapour.
b) Temperature
difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical high pressure
belt.
c) Cold
air advancing from temperate latitudes.
d) The equatorial jet
stream.
50.7.4.1 (3751)
What is the track
most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Carribean area?
a) West in the earlier
stages and later north east
b) East
c) West
deep into the U.S.
d) West in the earlier
stages and later south east
50.7.4.1 (3752)
Which statement is
true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?
a)
From the earth's surface up
to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundings
b) They
intensify rapidly after landfall
c) The diameter is
50-500 m
d) Their greatest
frequency of occurrence is in winter
50.7.4.1 (3753)
Why
do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the
tropical oceans?
a) Because
there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds`long sea passage
b) Because
they are areas in which there is a strong progressive windshear with increase
of height
c) Because
there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea
d) Because the gulf
formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation
50.7.4.2 (3754)
At
what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern
islands of Japan?
a) July to November.
b) September
to January.
c) January to May.
d) May to July.
50.7.4.2 (3755)
On
which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the
greatest?
a) SE coast
b) W coast
c) N
coast
d) NE coast
50.7.4.2 (3756)
What is the likely
track for a hurricane in the Carribean area?
a) West in the earlier
stages and later turning north east.
b) East then south.
c) West
deep into the USA.
d) West in the earlier
stages and later turning south east.
50.7.4.2 (3757)
During
which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern hemisphere?
b) Winter.
c) Winter
and spring.
d) All seasons.
50.7.4.2 (3758)
During which months is the Hurricane season
in the Caribbean?
a) July until November.
b) October until
January.
c) January
until April.
d) April until July.
50.7.4.2 (3759)
The
region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms
occur is
a) the
north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese coastline.
b) the
carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline
of the USA.
c) the south-western
Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Réunion.
d) the northern Indian
ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
50.7.4.2 (3760)
(For
this question use annex 050-10788A)The arrows labelled
""r"" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving
storms which occur mainly from
a) December to April and
are called cyclones
b) December to April and
are called tornadoes
c) June
to October and are called typhoons
d) June to October and
are called hurricanes
50.7.4.2 (3761)
(For
this question use annex 050-10791A)The arrows labelled
""s"" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving
storms which occur mainly from
a) May to November and
are called cyclones
b) December
to April and are called cyclones
c) May to November and
are called hurricanes
d) December to April and
are called typhoons
50.7.4.2 (3762)
(For
this question use annex 050-10792A)The arrows labelled
""t"" represents the mean track of tropical revolving
storms which occur mainly from
a) June to October and
are called cyclones
b) December to April and
are called hurricanes
c) June
to October and are called tornadoes
d) June to October and
are called hurricanes
50.7.4.2 (3763)
(For
this question use annex 050-10793A)The arrows labelled
""u"" represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms
which occur mainly from
a) July to October and
are called typhoons
b) January to March and
are called willy-willies
c) May to July and are
called cyclones
d) December to April and
are called tornadoes
50.7.4.2 (3764)
When,
if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the
central north coast of Australia?
a) December to April
b) May
to July
c) August to October
d) Not experienced at
Darwin
50.8.1.1 (3765)
At
about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of
prevailing westerlies?
a) 50°N.
b) 10°N.
c) 30°N.
d) 80°N.
50.8.1.1 (3766)
The
reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than
in summer is that
a) the
temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in
winter.
b) the low pressure
activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter.
c) the
strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development
of lows.
d) converging air
currents are of greater intensity in winter.
50.8.1.1 (3767)
(For
this question use annex 050 -10795A)Considering that portion of the route
indicated from 30°E to 50°E, the upper winds in January above FL 300 are most
likely to be
a) a subtropical
westerly jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
b) a westerly polar
front jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
c) variable
in direction and less than 30 kt
d) light easterlies
50.8.1.2 (3768)
What
is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the
equatorial region ?
a)
Rainshowers, hail showers
and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but frequency is highest during two
periods: April-May and October-November.
b) Warm
fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout
the year
c) Precipitation
is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The
greatest intensity is in July.
d) Showers of rain or
hail occur throughout the year, the frequency is highest in January.
50.8.2.2 (3769)
When
are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?
a) March to May and October to
November.
b) December to February
and July to October.
c) March to May and
August to October.
d) April to July and
December to February.
50.8.2.2 (3770)
During
July flights from Bangkok (13°N - 100°E) to Karachi (25°N - 67°E) experience an
average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the same flights, also
operating at FL 370, have an average headwind of 50 kt. What is the reason for
this difference?
a)
The wind components
correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind system.
b) The
flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual, favourable
conditions.
c) The
flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse conditions.
d) The flights happen to
be in the area of the polar front jet stream.
50.8.2.2 (3771)
Which of the following statements concerning
trade winds is correct?
a)
They occur only in the
lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the oceans
b) They
reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the continents
c) They reach up to the
tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceans
d) They
occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more pronounced over
the continents
50.8.2.3 (3772)
Which
one of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone
(ITCZ) is correct?
a)
Frequent and widespread
thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ.
b) Thunderstorms seldom
occur within the area of the ITCZ.
c) The
ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream.
d) The ITCZ does not
change its position during the course of the year.
50.8.2.3 (3773)
In
which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone
most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro?
a) 0° - 7°N.
b) 3° -
8°S.
c) 8° - 12°S.
d) 7° - 12°N.
50.8.2.3 (3774)
Where,
during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be encountered?
a) In the vicinity of
Dakar
b) Near the Canary
Islands
c) At
the latitudes of Gibraltar
d) At the latitudes of
Algeria
50.8.2.3 (3775)
Which wind systems
converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?
a) SE trade winds and NE
trade winds
b) SW monsoon and NW
monsoon
c) SW
monsoon and NW trade winds
d) NW monsoon and SW
trade winds
50.8.2.3 (3776)
Which of the
following best describes the intertropical convergence zone ?
a)
The zone where the trade
winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern hemisphere.
b) The
zone where the Harmattan meets the northeasterly trade winds over Africa.
c) The zone where cold
fronts form in the tropics.
d) The zone where the
west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt.
50.8.2.3 (3777)
The
intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects
a)
western Africa between 10°
and 20°N and the northern coasts of the Arabian sea in July.
b) western Africa, at a
latitude of 25°N in July.
c) the
Atlantic ocean, between latitudes 10°N and 30°N, depending on the time of year.
d) western
Africa, where it is situated between the 10°N and 30°N parallels, depending on
the time of the year.
50.8.2.3 (3778)
Which
one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the ITCZ
in the region of West Africa?
a) It reaches its
maximum northerly position of 15° - 20° N in July
b) It reaches its
maximum southerly position of 5° S in January
c) It
oscillates during the year between 10 degrees North and 10 degrees South.
d) It oscillates during
the year between the Equator and 10 degrees North.
50.8.2.3 (3779)
Which
of the following statements concerning the intertropical convergence zone is true?
a) There are frequent
occurrences of CB
b) It
lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern
hemisphere in January
c) It
does not change its position over the oceans during the year
d) It is an area of low
pressure and low relative humidity
50.8.2.3 (3780)
(For
this question use annex 050-10797A)The dotted line designated
""Z"" represents the
a) mean position of the
intertropical front (ITCZ) during July
b) mean
position of the intertropical front (ITCZ) during January
c) northerly limit of
the sub tropical jet stream during July
d) northerly limit of
the SE trade winds during January
50.8.2.3 (3781)
(For this question
use annex 050-10798A)The dotted line labelled ""Y""
represents the
a) mean position of the
intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during January
b) axis
of the subtropical jet stream during January
c) mean position of the
intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July
d) mean position of the
temperate/tropical front during July
50.8.2.3 (3782)
(For
this question use annex 050-10799A)What weather conditions are most likely to
affect an approach to Dakar during July?
a) Wet and thundery due
to the proximity of intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
b) Dry and clear due to
the influence of the Azores high pressure system
c) Generally
clear skies - NW trade winds
d) Reduced visibility
due to the rising sand of the Harmattan
50.8.2.4 (3783)
What
winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon regions of
the Indian sub-continent ?
a) Northeasterly winds
bringing dry and hazy air.
b) Southwesterly
winds carrying warm and humid air.
c) Northwesterly winds
bringing dry and hazy air.
d) Southeasterly winds
carrying warm and humid air.
50.8.2.4 (3784)
What weather conditions are
indications of the summer monsoon in India?
a) Thunderstorms,
showers of heavy rain.
b) Stratus
clouds and drizzle.
c) Sandstorms.
d) Fog.
50.8.2.4 (3785)
From which direction do the
trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
a) SE
b) NE
c) SW
d) N
50.8.2.4 (3786)
What
name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high
pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?
a) Trade winds.
b) Doldrums.
c) Westerly
winds.
d) Monsoon.
50.8.2.4 (3787)
In which month does the humid monsoon in
India start?
a) In June.
b) In October.
c) In
December.
d) In March.
50.8.2.4 (3788)
What is the name of the wind or airmass
which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipitation?
a) South-west monsoon.
b) South-east
trade wind.
c) Indian, maritime
tropical air mass.
d) Winter monsoon.
50.8.2.4 (3789)
(For
this question use annex 050-10800A)Weather conditions at Bombay during early
July are mainly influenced by the
a) SW monsoon
b) NE monsoon and the
proximity of the ITCZ
c) passage
of frontal system generated in the south indian ocean
d) high incidence of
tropical revolving storms originating in the persian gulf
50.8.2.4 (3790)
(For
this question use annex 050-10801A)Weather conditions at Bombay during January
are mainly influenced by the
a) NE monsoon
b) SW
monsoon
c) NW monsoon
d) SE monsoon
50.8.2.4 (3791)
The
transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in
a) September, October,
November
b) July,
August, September
c) December, January,
February
d) February, March,
April
50.8.2.4 (3792)
The
prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the
equator (gulf of Guinea) is a
a) SW monsoon in summer
and NE tradewind in winter
b) SW monsoon in winter
and NE monsoon in summer
c) NE
tradewind in summer and SE tradewind in winter
d) NE monsoon in winter
and SE tradewind in summer
50.8.2.4 (3793)
Along the West coast
of India the prevailing winds are the
a) SW monsoon in July
and a NE monsoon in January
b) SW monsoon in July
and a SE monsoon in January
c) NE
monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
d) SE monsoon in July
and a SW monsoon in January
50.8.2.5 (3794)
What weather is
prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?
a) Thunderstorms and
rain.
b) Continuous rain.
c) Clear skies.
d) Frontal weather.
50.8.2.5 (3795)
An easterly wave is a
a) wave
in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity
in rear of its trough
b) wave-like
disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with
severe convective activity ahead of its trough
c) small
scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west, with severe
convective activity ahead of its trough
d) disturbance
in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from
east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough
50.8.3.1 (3796)
(For
this question use annex 050-4391A)Which typical weather condition is shown by
the design for the area of Central Europe ?
a) Westerly waves
b) Uniform
pressure pattern
c) Cutting wind
d) Easterly waves
50.8.3.2 (3797)
(For
this question use annex 050-4392A)Which typical weather condition is shown by
the design for northern Italy?
a) High pressure
b) Warm southerly wind
c) Westerly
wind
d) Easterly wind
50.8.3.2 (3798)
(For this question
use annex 050-4393A)The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the
ground at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects
weather development at Zurich Airport?
a) TAF
LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500
BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 =
b) TAF LSZH 101601
05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 =
c) TAF
LSZH 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA
BKN003 OVC015 =
d) TAF
LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =
50.8.3.2 (3799)
(For
this question use annex 050-10802A)The weather most likely to be experienced at
position ""R"" is
a) fine and warm with
little or no cloud
b) early morning fog
lifting to low stratus
c) increasing
high and medium cloud cover and generally good visibility
d) mainly overcast with
anticyclonic gloom
50.8.3.3 (3800)
(For
this question use annex 050-2059A)Which typical weather situation is shown on
the weather chart ? (Spacing of the isobars: 5 hPa)
e) Uniform pressure
pattern.
f) Cutting
wind.
g) West wind condition.
h) Warm south wind
condition (Foehn).
50.8.3.3 (3801)
With
a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the
indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over
a period of about ten minutes?
a) Apparently nothing,
because any changes would be small.
b) Increase
rapidly.
c) Show strong
fluctuations.
d) Decrease rapidly.
50.8.3.3 (3802)
(For
this question use annex 050-10803A)The weather most likely to be experienced at
position ""R"" is
a)
fine and warm at first - AC
Castellanus and CB in late afternoon with thunderstorms
b) early
morning fog lifting to low stratus
c) increasing amounts of
AS and NS - heavy rain
d) overcast with drizzle
and hill fog
50.8.3.4
(3803) A cold pool
a)
is usually most evident in
the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and may show
little or no sign on a surface chart
b) develops usually in
winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents stream
southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in
association with occluded systems
c) normally
disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
d)
occurs frequently in winter to the south of
the Alps when this region is under the influence of cold north-westerly
airstream
50.8.4.1 (3804)
Which
weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with stormy
winds from the south (Foehn)?
a) Good visibility,
turbulence.
b) Continuous
precipitation, severe turbulence.
c) Decrease
in temperature, moderate to severe icing.
d) Icing, huge mass of
clouds.
50.8.4.1 (3805)
For
an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan
wind?
a) Dust and poor
visibility.
b) Thunderstorms.
c) Sand up to FL 150.
d) Hail.
50.8.4.1 (3806)
What
is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern
Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
a) Bora.
b) Ghibli.
c) Mistral.
d) Scirocco.
50.8.4.1 (3807)
What is characteristic of
the pamperos?
a) A marked advance of
cold air in South America
b) Katabatic
winds in the Atlas Mountains
c) A marked advance of
cold arctic air in North America
d) Foehn conditions in
the Spanish Pyrenees
50.8.4.1 (3808)
What
weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from
south?
a) Clouds, on the
southern sides of passes in the Alps
b) Heavy clear air
turbulence on the southern side of the Alps
c) Strong
north winds on the southern side of the Alps
d) Heavy airframe icing
conditions on the northern side of the Alps
50.8.4.1 (3809)
Which of the following zones is most likely
to encounter little or no precipitation?
a) The north side of the
alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south.
b) The north side of the
alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north.
c) Frontal
zones.
d) Occlusions.
50.8.4.1 (3810)
(For
this question use annex 050-4305A)Under the weather conditions depicted, which
of the following statements is likely to apply?
a) Thunderstorms may
occur in the summer months over Central Europe.
b) Severe
gradient wind likely over Central Europe.
c) Moderate to strong
Foehn in the Alps.
d) Radiation fog is
unlikely in Central Europe in the winter.
50.8.4.1 (3811)
(For
this question use annex 050-4725A)Considering the route indicates from Lisbon
to Freetown, the Harmattan is a
a)
NE wind affecting
north-west Africa during November to April reducing visibility in rising dust.
b) SW
monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the West African
coast south of 15°N.
c) warm
southerly dust-bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa.
d) localised depression
giving squally winds.
50.8.4.1
(3812) The Bora is a
a) cold catabatic wind
with the possibility of violent gusts
b) squally warm
catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
c) cold
catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
d) cold catabatic wind
always associated with clouds and heavy showers
50.8.4.1
(3813) The Foehn wind is a
a) warm fall wind
b) cold fall wind
c) warm
anabatic wind
d) cold anabatic wind
50.8.4.1 (3814)
Which one of the
following local winds is a Foehn wind?
a) Chinook
b) Scirocco
c) Harmattan
d) Bora
50.8.4.1 (3815)
A Foehn wind occurs
on the
a)
leeward side of a mountain
range and is caused by significant moisture loss by precipitation from cloud
b) windward
side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heating
c) windward side of a
mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and reverse air flow
d)
leeward side of a mountain range and is
caused by the condensation level being lower on the leeward side than on the
windward side
50.8.4.1
(3816) The Chinook is a
a) warm
and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Rocky
Mountains
b) very
cold wind with blowing snow
c) downslope wind that
occurs particularly at night as air cools along mountain slopes
d) warm anabatic wind up
the slopes of snowfields or glaciers
50.8.4.1 (3817)
A
strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air
over hills or mountains is known as a
a) Foehn
b) Harmattan
c) Mistral
d) Bora
50.8.4.1 (3818)
A
dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large
parts of North West Africa is known as a
a) Harmattan
b) Scirocco
c) Pampero
d) Khamsin
50.8.4.1 (3819)
What
is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a
certain part of Europe?
a) Mistral.
b) Foehn.
c) Bora.
d) Typhoon.
50.8.4.1 (3820)
What are the characteristics
of the Bora ?
a) It
is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a tableland
downwards to the Adriatic
b) It is
a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter from a northwesterly direction in
the Mediterranean
c) It is
a warm and moist, southwesterly wind experienced in the eastern Mediterranean,
that usually carries precipitation.
d) It is a dry and hot southerly
wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that often carries dust.
50.8.4.1 (3821)
What is the name of
the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain chains? In the Alps,
for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly wind depending on
the weather situation.
a) Foehn.
b) Mistral.
c) Bora.
d) Scirocco.
50.9.1.1 (3822)
In which of these cloud types can icing be
virtually ruled out?
a) CI
b) SC
c) NS
d) CU
50.9.1.1 (3823)
In which of these cloud types can icing be
virtually ruled out?
a) CS
b) AS
c) SC
d) NS
50.9.1.1 (3824)
Which of the following conditions is most
likely to cause airframe icing ?
a) #NAME?
b) GR
c) SHSN
d) PE
50.9.1.1 (3825)
(For
this question use annex 050-4314A)Continuous freezing rain is observed at an
airfield. Which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures
above the airfield concerned?
a) Diagram d)
b) Diagram c)
c) Diagram
b)
d) Diagram a)
50.9.1.1 (3826)
Atmospheric soundings give the following
temperature profile :3000 FT +15°C6000 FT +8°C10000 FT +1°C14000 FT -6°C18000
FT -14°C24000 FT -26°CAt which of the following flight levels is the risk for
aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest?
a) FL 150
b) FL 80
c) FL
180
d) FL 220
50.9.1.1 (3827)
On the approach, the surface temperature is
given as -5°C. The freezing level is at 3000 FT/AGL. At 4000 FT/AGL, there is a
solid cloud layer from which rain is falling.According to the weather briefing,
the clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an
inclined front. Would you expect icing?
a) Yes, between ground
level and 3000 FT/AGL.
b) Yes,
but only between 3000 and 4000 FT/AGL.
c) No, flights clear of
cloud experience no icing.
d) No, absolutely no
icing will occur.
50.9.1.1 (3828)
In
which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest
rate of accretion ?
a) Freezing rain.
b) Cirrus clouds.
c) Stratus
clouds.
d) Snow.
50.9.1.1 (3829)
In
which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's
surface?
a) 0°C to -10°C
b) +10°C
to 0°C
c) -20°C to -35°C
d) -35°C to -50°C
50.9.1.1 (3830)
Which
of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe
icing?
a) It is likely to occur
in nimbostratus cloud
b) It will occur in
clear-sky conditions
c) It
may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation
d) It always occurs in
altostratus cloud
50.9.1.1 (3831)
Which
of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe
icing?
a) It will not occur in
clear-sky conditions
b) It
always occurs in altostratus cloud
c) It is unlikely to
occur in nimbostratus cloud
d) It may occur in the
uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation
50.9.1.1 (3832)
You
have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air
temperature is -25°C. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Severe airframe icing
is unlikely under these conditions
b) Severe airframe icing
is quite likely under these conditions
c) If
you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as CB is
unlikely to form in such cloud
d) In a dense layered
cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air temperature of -5°C
50.9.1.1 (3833)
Freezing fog exists if fog
droplets
a) are supercooled
b) are
frozen
c) are freezing very
rapidly
d) freeze when
temperature falls below zero
50.9.1.1 (3834)
A
vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the
temperature profile
a) intersects the 0°C
isotherm twice
b) coincides with a dry
adiabatic lapse rate
c) indicates
temperatures below -40°C
d) indicates
temperatures above 3°C
50.9.1.1 (3835)
In which of the following situations is an
aircraft most susceptible to icing ?
a) Level flight below a
rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees C.
b) Flying in dense
cirrus clouds.
c) Level
flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer.
d) Flying in heavy
drizzle.
50.9.1.1 (3836)
Which
of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing
when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled
cloud droplets?
a) Altocumulus and
altostratus.
b) Stratocumulus and
cirrostratus
c) Stratus
and cumulonimbus
d) Altostratus and
cirrocumulus
50.9.1.1 (3837)
A
winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and
temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect:
a)
A high probability for
icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due to accumulation of large droplets.
b) Decreasing
visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in clouds.
c) Reduced visibility
and light icing in clouds
d) Turbulence due to a
strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist of ice crystals
50.9.1.1 (3838)
Which one of the following statements
concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct ?
a)
A cloud consisting of both
supercooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft icing
b) Greatest
risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds.
c) Risk for icing
increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 degrees C.
d) Probability of icing
increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud.
50.9.1.1 (3839)
Which
of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the
various types of ice on an aircraft ?
a) Cloud temperature and
droplet size
b) Aircraft speed and
size of cloud droplets
c) Aircraft
speed and curvature of the airfoil
d) Relative humidity
inside the cloud
50.9.1.2 (3840)
Rime ice forms
through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of
a) small supercooled
water drops.
b) large supercooled
water drops.
c) water
vapour.
d) snow.
50.9.1.2
(3841)
Under
which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in
a CB?
a) Between -2°C and
-15°C
b) Between
-20°C and -30°C
c) Close to the freezing
level
d) Between -30°C and
-40°C
50.9.1.2 (3842)
Clear
ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :
a) large supercooled
water drops
b) water
vapour
c) small supercooled
water drops
d) snow
50.9.1.2 (3843)
During
the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze
a) rapidly and do not
spread out
b) slowly
and do not spread out
c) slowly and spread out
d) rapidly and spread
out
50.9.1.2 (3844)
Glaze or clear ice is formed when
supercooled droplets are
a) large and at a
temperature just below freezing
b) small and at a
temperature just below freezing
c) small
and freeze rapidly
d) of any size at
temperatures below -35°C.
50.9.1.2 (3845)
Clear ice forms as a result of
a) supercooled water
droplets spreading during the freezing process
b) water vapour freezing
to the aircraft
c) ice
pellets splattering on the aircraft
d) supercooled droplets
freezing on impact
50.9.1.2 (3846)
Large supercooled water drops, which freeze
on impact on an aircraft, form
a) clear ice
b) rime ice
c) hoar
frost
d) cloudy ice
50.9.1.2 (3847)
The
type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that
have a temperature of -5°C is most likely to be
a) clear ice
b) hoar
frost
c) rime ice
d) cloudy ice
50.9.1.2 (3848)
Clear ice is dangerous
because it
a) is heavy and is
difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
b) is
translucent and only forms at the leading edges
c) is not translucent
and forms at the leading edges
d) spreads out and
contains many air particles
50.9.1.2 (3849)
Hoar frost forms on an
aircraft as a result of
a) water vapour turning
directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
b) freezing
rain striking the aircraft
c) droplets forming on
the aircraft and then freezing
d) small super-cooled
droplets striking the aircraft
50.9.1.2 (3850)
Hoar frost is most likely to
form when
a) taking off from an
airfield with a significant ground inversion.
b) flying
inside convective clouds.
c) flying inside
stratiform clouds.
d) flying in supercooled
drizzle.
50.9.1.2 (3851)
While descending
through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and rough
powderlike contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This
contamination is called:
a) Rime ice.
b) Clear ice.
c) Mixed
ice.
d) Frost.
50.9.1.2 (3852)
A small supercooled
cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely
a) freeze immediately
and create rime ice.
b) freeze immediately
and create clear ice.
c) travel
back over the wing, creating rime ice.
d) travel back over the
wing, creating clear ice.
50.9.1.3 (3853)
How does a pilot react to heavy freezing
rain at 2000 FT/AGL, when he is unable to deice, nor land?
a) He turns back before
the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.
b) He
descends to the warm air layer below.
c) He ascends to the
cold air layer above.
d) He continues to fly
at the same altitude.
50.9.1.3 (3854)
At
what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change of course and/or altitude
desirable"" recommendation be followed?
a) Moderate
b) Light
c) Severe
d) Extreme
50.9.1.3 (3855)
At
what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change course and/or altitude
immediately"" instruction be followed?
a) Severe
b) Light
c) Moderate
d) Extreme
50.9.1.3 (3856)
At
what degree of icing can ICAO's ""No change of course and altitude
necessary"" recommendation be followed?
a) Light
b) Moderate
c) Severe
d) Extreme
50.9.1.3 (3857)
The
most dangerous form of airframe icing is
a) clear ice.
b) hoar frost.
c) dry ice.
d) rime ice.
50.9.1.3 (3858)
Two
aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile
(T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud
consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is
most correct concerning ice accretion ?
a) Aircraft S
experiences more icing than T.
b) Aircraft T
experiences more icing than S.
c) Aircraft
S and T experience the same amount of icing
d) Neither of the
aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets.
50.9.2.1 (3859)
How does moderate turbulence affect an
aircraft?
a)
Changes in altitude or
attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times.
b) Rapid
and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in
altitude or attitude.
c) Large,
abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out
of control momentarily.
d) Continued flight in
this environment will result in structural damage.
50.9.2.1 (3860)
A zone of strong convection
currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide
to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures?
a) Decrease
the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft
performance parameters allow.
b) Increase
the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft
performance parameters allow.
c) Decrease the speed /
try to descend below the zone of convective currents.
d) Increase the speed /
try to descend below the zone of convective currents.
50.9.2.1 (3861)
What is normally the most
effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
a) Change of flight
level.
b) Change
of course.
c) Increase of speed.
d) Decrease of speed.
50.9.2.1 (3862)
An
aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and
experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at
FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by :
a) Descending
b) Climbing
c) Turn right
d) Maintain FL 270
50.9.2.1 (3863)
A flight is to depart
from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05, an inversion is
reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the
inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure ?
a) Depart on runway 09
with a tailwind.
b) Depart runway 27 with
maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion.
c) Depart
runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible.
d) Take-off is not
possible under these conditions.
50.9.2.2 (3864)
The degree of clear
air turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to the
a) intensity of vertical
and horizontal windshear
b) height of the
aircraft
c) stability
of the air
d) intensity of the
solar radiation
50.9.2.2 (3865)
The turbulence which
occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air
Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe Clear Air Turbulence affect an
aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
a)
The turbulence is a small
scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. The manoeuvring of the
aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the
flight will be unpleasant.
b) The
turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult
to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort.
c) The turbulence can be
resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small scale) and will not have
influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more
difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this turbulence.
d)
The turbulence is wave like which makes the
flight unpleasant for the passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected
essentially.
50.9.3.1 (3866)
What is the effect of
a strong low level inversion ?
a) It promotes vertical
windshear.
b) It promotes extensive
vertical movement of air.
c) It
prevents vertical windshear.
d) It results in good
visual conditions.
50.9.3.1 (3867)
Low level wind shear
is likely to be greatest
a) at the top of a
marked surface-based inversion.
b) at the condensation
level when there is no night radiation.
c) at
the condensation level when there is strong surface friction.
d) at the top of the
friction layer.
50.9.3.1
(3868) Vertical wind shear is
a) vertical variation in
the horizontal wind
b) vertical variation in
the vertical wind
c) horizontal
variation in the horizontal wind
d) horizontal variation
in the vertical wind
50.9.3.2 (3869)
Low level vertical wind shear can be
expected during the night
a) in association with
radiation inversions
b) in unstable
atmospheres
c) and
early morning only in winter
d) and early morning
only in summer
50.9.3.2 (3870)
The most dangerous low level wind shears are
encountered
a) when strong ground
inversions are present and near thunderstorms
b) in areas with layered
clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt
c) during
any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
d) near valleys and at
the windward side of mountains.
50.9.3.2 (3871)
Above and below a low level inversion the
wind is likely to
a) change significantly
in speed and direction
b) change in speed but
not in direction
c) change
in direction but not in speed
d) experience little or
no change in speed and direction
50.9.4.1 (3872)
Where is a squall line to be expected?
a) In front of an active
cold front.
b) Behind a cold front.
c) In
front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels.
d) At the surface
position of a warm front.
50.9.4.1
(3873) What are squall lines?
a) Bands of intensive
thunderstorms.
b) Unusual intensive
cold fronts.
c) The
surface weather associated with upper air troughs.
d) The paths of tropical
revolving storms.
50.9.4.1 (3874)
What weather condition would you expect at a
squall line?
a) Thunderstorms
b) Strong steady rain
c) Fog
d) Strong whirlwinds
reaching up to higher levels
50.9.4.1 (3875)
At
which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with
a CB?
a) From the ground up to
a maximum of FL 450.
b) From
the ground up to about FL 200.
c) From the ground up to
about FL 100.
d) From the base of the
clouds up to FL 200.
50.9.4.1 (3876)
A squall line usually
is most likely to be encountered
a) ahead of a cold front
b) at an occluded front
c) in an
airmass with cold mass properties
d) behind of a
stationary front
50.9.4.1 (3877)
In
which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and
downdrafts simultaneously?
a) Mature stage
b) Cumulus
stage
c) Dissipating stage
d) In all stages
50.9.4.1 (3878)
During
the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by
downdrafts?
a) Dissipating stage
b) Cumulus stage
c) Mature
stage
d) Anvil stage
50.9.4.1 (3879)
What feature is
normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
a) Continuous updraft
b) Roll cloud
c) Frequent
lightning
d) Rain or hail at the
surface
50.9.4.1
(3880) A gustfront is
a) formed by the cold
air outflow from a thunderstorm
b) normally encountered
directly below a thunderstorm
c) characterized
by heavy lightning
d) another name for a
cold front
50.9.4.2 (3881)
In
Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm
updrafts?
a) Mid - afternoon.
b) Around
midnight.
c) Early morning.
d) Late morning.
50.9.4.2 (3882)
During which stage of thunderstorm
development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to occur ?
a) Mature stage.
b) Cumulus stage.
c) Dissipating stage.
d) Cumulus stage and
mature stage.
50.9.4.2 (3883)
What
are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed by
lifting processes, over land?
a) High temperatures,
high humidity.
b) High
air pressure (> 1013 hPa), high temperatures.
c) Low temperatures, low
humidity.
d) Subsidence,
inversion.
50.9.4.2 (3884)
Which
of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability
which may lead to thunderstorm development ?
a) AC castellanus.
b) AC lenticularis.
c) Halo.
d) Red cirrus.
50.9.4.2 (3885)
Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are
generally caused by
a) thermal triggering.
b) frontal lifting (warm
front).
c) frontal
lifting (cold front).
d) frontal occlusion.
50.9.4.2 (3886)
Which thunderstorms move forward the
fastest?
a) Frontal
thunderstorms.
b) Thunderstorms formed
by lifting processes.
c) Thermal
thunderstorms.
d) Orographic
thunderstorms.
50.9.4.2 (3887)
The initial phase of a thunderstorm is
characterized by
a) continuous updraughts
b) continuous
downdraughts
c) frequent
lightning
d) rain starting at
surface
50.9.4.2 (3888)
In
addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for
thunderstorm formation ?
a) Unstable conditions
and high moisture content
b) Stable
conditions and high moisture content
c) Stable conditions and
low atmospheric pressure
d) Unstable conditions
and low atmospheric pressure
50.9.4.2 (3889)
Continuous updraughts occur in a
thunderstorm during the
a) cumulus stage.
b) mature stage.
c) dissipating
stage.
d) period in which
precipitation is falling.
50.9.4.2
(3890)
Thunderstorms reach
their greatest intensity during the
a) mature stage.
b) cumulus stage.
c) dissipating
stage.
d) period in which
precipitation is not falling.
50.9.4.2 (3891)
What are the
requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
a) An adequate supply of
moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
b) Water vapour and high
pressure
c) A
stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
d) A cumulus cloud with
sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
50.9.4.2 (3892)
Which
thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land in
moderate latitudes?
a) Airmass thunderstorms
b) Warm
front thunderstorms
c) Cold mass
thunderstorms
d) Occlusion
thunderstorms
50.9.4.2 (3893)
In
which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms
encountered ?
a) Tropical
b) Polar
c) Subtropical
d) Temperate
50.9.4.2 (3894)
Thunderstorms can
occur on a warm front if the
a)
warm air is moist and the
environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
b) cold
air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic
lapse rate
c) warm
air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated
adiabatic lapse rate
d)
cold air is moist and the environmental
lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
50.9.4.3 (3895)
The
most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight
is
a) cumulonimbus
b) stratocumulus
c) cumulus
d) cirrus
50.9.4.4 (3896)
What is the approximate maximum diameter of
a microburst ?
a) 4 km
b) 400 m
c) 20 km
d) 50 km
50.9.4.4
(3897) What is a microburst?
a)
A concentrated downdraft
with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air.
b) A
concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the
surrounding air.
c) An
extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.
d) A small low pressure
system where the wind circulates with very high speeds.
50.9.4.4 (3898)
How long does a typical microburst last?
a) 1 to 5 minutes.
b) Less than 1 minute.
c) 1 to
2 hours.
d) About 30 minutes.
50.9.4.4 (3899)
A microburst phenomenon can arise in the
a) downdraught of a
cumulonimbus at the mature stage.
b) updraught of a
cumulonimbus at the mature stage.
c) downdraught
of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage.
d) updraught of a
cumulonimbus at the growth stage.
50.9.4.4 (3900)
Which of the following statements describes
a microburst ?
a) A
high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature than its
surroundings
b) A
high speed downdraft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundings
c) An extremely strong
wind gust associated with a tropical revolving storm
d) A small low pressure
system where the wind circulates at high speed
50.9.4.4 (3901)
The diameter and the life
time of a typical microburst are in the order of
a) 4 km and 1-5 minutes
b) 4 km
and 30-40 minutes
c) 8 km and 5-15 minutes
d) 12 km and 5-10
minutes
50.9.4.4
(3902) A microburst
a) has a diameter up to
4 km
b) has a life time of
more than 30 minutes
c) is
always associated with thunderstorms
d) occurs only in
tropical areas
50.9.4.5
(3903)
Aircraft struck by
lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least temporarily the
manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the
following statements is correct?
a)
Aircraft made by composite
material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and temporarily lose
the hearing.
b) An
aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the
lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.
c) An
aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a ""Faradays
cage"", which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it
happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a
shock.
d)
Aircraft made by composite material can´t
conduct a lightning and will therefore very seldom be struck.
50.9.5.1 (3904)
At
what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
a) Spring, summer.
b) Summer,
autumn.
c) Autumn, winter.
d) Winter.
50.9.5.1 (3905)
With
which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated ?
a) Cumulonimbus
b) Cumulus
c) Stratus
d) Nimbostratus
50.9.5.1 (3906)
The
diameter of a typical tornado is
a) 100 to 150 metres
b) only
a few metres
c) about 2 to 6 km
d) in the order of 10 km
50.9.6.1 (3907)
A
wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after
take off the aircraft's rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to
a) a very strong
temperature inversion
b) sand/dust in the
engines
c) very
pronounced downdrafts
d) low relative humidity
50.9.8.1 (3908)
Which
of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stable layer of air is
forced to rise against a mountain range ?
a) Stratified clouds
b) Inversions
c) Showers
and thunderstorms
d) Areas of severe
turbulence
50.9.8.2 (3909)
You
intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a hot summer day, when the
weather is unstable. What is the best time of day to conduct this flight?
a) Morning.
b) Mid-day.
c) Afternoon.
d) Early evening.
50.9.8.2 (3910)
You
are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C and a TAS of 250 kt at FL
150 through 8 oktas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable?
a) In clouds pushed up
against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice.
b) In clouds pushed up
against the mountains, moderate to severe rime ice.
c) Over
flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice.
d) Over flat terrain,
moderate hoar frost.
50.9.9.1 (3911)
In
general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during
drizzle is
a) greater
b) the
same
c) less
d) in rain - below 1 km,
in drizzle - more than 2 km
50.9.9.1 (3912)
Flight
visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease
to minimal
a) tens of metres
b) about 200 metres
c) about
500 metres
d) about 1000 metres
50.9.9.1 (3913)
Visibility is reduced by haze when
a) dust particles are
trapped below an inversion
b) a light drizzle falls
c) a
cold front just passed
d) small waterdroplets
are present
50.9.9.1 (3914)
In unstable air, surface visibility is most
likely to be restricted by
a) showers of rain or
snow
b) haze
c) drizzle
d) low stratus
50.9.9.1 (3915)
In
the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface
visibility when
a) there is a low level
inversion
b) the
surface wind is strong and gusty
c) cumulus clouds have
developed in the afternoon
d) a rapid moving cold
front has just passed the area
50.9.9.1 (3916)
Below
a low level inversion visibility is often
a) moderate or poor
because there is no vertical exchange
b) very
good at night
c) very good in the
early morning
d) moderate or poor due
to heavy snow showers.
50.10.1.1 (3917)
What
is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis.) and RVR in
homogeneous fog?
a) The met. vis. is
generally less than the RVR.
b) The met. vis.
generally is greater than the RVR.
c) The
met. vis. generally is the same as the RVR.
d) There is no specific
relationship between the two.
50.10.1.1 (3918)
The wind indicator for a weather observation
receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument
placed?
a) On a mast 8-10 m
above the ground.
b) 1 m
above the runway.
c) Close to the station
about 2 m above the ground.
d) On the roof of the
weather station.
50.10.1.1 (3919)
What
is the meaning of the abbreviation ""BKN""?
a) 5 - 7 oktas.
b) 3 - 4
oktas.
c) 6 - 8 oktas.
d) 8 oktas.
50.10.1.1 (3920)
When
is the RVR reported at most airports?
a) When the
meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m.
b) When
the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m.
c) When the RVR
decreases below 800 m.
d) When the RVR
decreases below 2000 m.
50.10.1.1 (3921)
When
will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?
a) When gusts are at
least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
b) When
gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
c) With gusts of at
least 25 knots
d) With gusts of at
least 35 knots
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