Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 5

1.  Oxygen is to be carried for all crew members and passengers above a absolute pressure of: 

           a) 800 hPa    b) 700 hPa   c) 620 hPa d) 1000 hPa

Ans. c)

2. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded

    information concerning

      a) Pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to

          an obstruction

      b) Non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion

      c) Non-control information   in selected high-activity terminal areas

      d) To warn pilots about conflicting traffic

Ans. c)

3. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be

a)      flashing red    b) steady red    c) alternating red and green    d) steady white

Ans. b)

4. Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 4

Q1. AIP India is published by:

       a) DGCA       b) AAI          c) Civil Aviation Ministry        d) ICAO

Ans. b)

Q2. AIP consists of:

       a) 3 parts (GEN, ENR & AD)                                    b) 4 parts (GEN, ENR, AD MET)

       c) 6 parts (GEN, ENR, AD, MET, COMM, ATC)   d) 2 parts (GEN, AD)

Ans. a)

Q3. Regular amendments to the AIP will be:

       a) Twice a year in Jan and July month of each year

       b) Every quarter of the year Jan, April, July and Oct month of each year

       c) Once every year in the month of April of each year

       d) On as required basis

Ans. c)

Q4. Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 3

1. In class A airspace

a)      All flights are permitted.            b) Only VFR flights are permitted. 

c)   Only IFR flights are permitted. d) SPL VFR flights are permitted.

Ans. c)

2. In class D air space

a)      IFR & VFR flights are permitted & all flights are subject to Air Traffic Control

b)      IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights & receive information in respect of VFR flights

c)      VFR flights receive traffic information about other flights

d)     all are correct

Ans. d)

3. Route guides are required to be carried in

a)      all aircraft                                                                     b) all private aircraft   

c)   Aircraft involved in scheduled transport services       d) all aircraft engaged in aerial work

Ans. c)

4.  ADC clearance is required to be obtained

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 2

1. Prohibition of flights over Mathura refinery:

a) With in a radius of 1 NM.                   b) With in a radius of 10 NM

c) With in a radius of 20 NM                  d) with in a radius of 10 kms

Ans.     (d)  

2. Following failure of two way radio communications the pilot should select one of the  

   following on the transponder :

a) Mode A 7700    b) Mode A 7500      c) Mode C 2000    d) Mode A 7600

Ans.     (d)

3. When two aircraft are approaching head on, the rules of the air require that

a) Both aircraft alter heading to starboard            b) Both aircraft alter heading to port                                    

c) The larger aircraft alters heading to starboard d) The smaller aircraft alters heading to port

Ans.     (a) 

4. An Instrument Rating Test is valid before renewal for:   

Regulation Miscellaneous Que. Paper - 1

1. Position report is required to be given when

a)      Crossing an FIR               b)Over a compulsory reporting point

c)      if so required by ATC      d) all are correct

Ans.     d

2. Aerodrome data and facilities are given in

a)      Aeradio         b) AIP         c) Notams         d) AIRACs

Ans.     b

3. An aircraft is following a track of 179º (M) on a VFR plan. The choice of flight levels  

    available to the pilot are:

a)      50,70,90,150,170,190,210,230,250,270,290

b)      55,75,95,155,175,195,215,235,255,275,295

c)      50,70,90,110,130,160,180,200,220,240,260,280

d)     55, 75, 95, 115, 135, 155, 175, 195, 215, 235, 255, 275

Ans.     d

4. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal means:

Meteorology Indigo Que. Bank Part 5 (327- 340)

50.10.1.1 (3922)

While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:RVR runway 23: 400mThis information indicates the

a) length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23.

b) meteorological visibility on runway 23.

c)  portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23 in service.

d) minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service.

50.10.1.1 (3923)

Runway Visual Range (RVR) is

a) usually better than meteorological visibility

b) reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000m

c) reported in TAF and METAR

d) measured with ceilometers alongside the runway

50.10.1.1 (3924)

The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to

a) true north

b) magnetic north

c) the 0-meridian

d) grid north

50.10.1.1 (3925)

The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above

Meteorology Indigo Que. Bank Part 4 (312-326)

50.7.2.1 (3731)

In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone ?

a) Calm winds, haze.

b) TS, SH.

c) CB, TS.

d) NS.

50.7.2.1 (3732)

What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?

a) Sinking air

b) Rising air

c) Instability

d) Divergence at higher levels

50.7.2.1 (3733) Subsidence is :

a) vertically downwards motion of air

b) horizontal motion of air

c) vertically upwards motion of air

d) the same as convection

50.7.2.1 (3734)

If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a

a) warm high

b) cold low

c) cold high

d) warm low

50.7.2.1 (3735)

The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called

a) subsidence inversion

b) friction inversion

c) radiation inversion

d) trade wind inversion

50.7.2.1 (3736)

A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is

Meteorology Indigo Que Bank Part 3 (299-311)

50.3.2.1 (3560)

Supercooled droplets can occur in

a) clouds, fog and precipitation

b) clouds but not in precipitation

c) precipitation but not in clouds

d) clouds but not in fog

50.3.2.1 (3561)

Supercooled droplets are always

a) at a temperature below freezing

b) small and at a temperature below freezing

c) large and at a temperature below freezing

d) at a temperature below -60°C

50.3.2.1 (3562)

Supercooled droplets can be encountered

a) at any time of the year

b) in winter only in high clouds

c) only in winter above 10000 FT

d) only in winter at high altitude

50.3.2.1 (3563)

A super-cooled droplet is

a) a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing

b) a water droplet that is mainly frozen

c) a small particle of water at a temperature below -50°C

d) a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent

50.3.2.1 (3564)

The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as

a) sublimation

b) supercooling

c) supersaturation

d) radiation cooling

50.3.2.1 (3565)

When water evaporates into unsaturated air

a) heat is absorbed

b) heat is released

c) relative humidity is not changed

d) relative humidity is decreased

50.3.2.1 (3566)

A super-cooled droplet is one that

a) remains liquid at a below freezing temperature

b) has frozen to become an ice pellet

c) has a shell of ice with water inside it

d) is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air

50.3.3.1 (3567)

What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 FT ?

Meteorology Indigo Que Bank Part 2 (287-298)

50.1.6.3 (3407)

An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 FT, QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate ?

a) 1080 FT

b) 700 FT

c) 380 FT

d) 0 FT

50.1.6.3 (3408)

What pressure is defined as QFE?

a) The pressure at field elevation

b) The pressure of the altimeter

c) The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures

d) The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures

50.1.6.3 (3409)

An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be

a) 3006 FT.

b) 2922 FT.

c) 4278 FT.

d) 4194 FT.

50.1.6.3 (3410)

In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is

a) 942 hPa.

b) 967 hPa.

c) 961 hPa.

d) 948 hPa.

50.1.6.3 (3411)

An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately

a) 7650 FT.

b) 8600 FT.

c) 8350 FT.

d) 8000 FT.

50.1.6.3 (3412)

The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is 1023 hPa.Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 FT, the reading on the altimeter on the ground will be:

a) 20 FT.

b) 11 FT.

c) -10 FT.

d) 560 FT.

50.1.6.3 (3413)

Which of the following statements is true ?

Meteorology Indigo Que Bank Part 1 (276-286)

50.1.1.1 (3272)

How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere ?

a) It decreases from south to north.

b) It remains constant from north to south.

c) It increases from south to north.

d) It remains constant throughout the year.

50.1.1.1 (3273)

What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?

a) 16 km

b) 8 km

c) 11 km

d) 40 km

50.1.1.1 (3274)

In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ?

a) Troposphere.

b) Tropopause.

c) Stratosphere.

d) Stratopause.

50.1.1.1 (3275)

What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?

a) Tropopause.

b) Ionosphere.

c) Stratosphere.

d) Atmosphere.

50.1.1.1 (3276)

Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?

a) Cumulonimbus

b) Cirrostratus

c) Altocumulus

d) Altostratus

50.1.1.1 (3277)

Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?

a) It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere

b) It is, by definition, an isothermal layer

c) It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate

d) It is, by definition, a temperature inversion

50.1.1.1 (3278)

Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?